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8020 Exam Pass4sure & 8020 Torrent VCE: ORM Certificate - 2023 Update
In the Desktop 8020 practice exam software version of PRMIA 8020 practice test is updated and real. The software is useable on Windows-based computers and laptops. There is a demo of the 8020 practice exam which is totally free. 8020 practice test is very customizable and you can adjust its time and number of questions. Desktop 8020 Practice Exam software also keeps track of the earlier attempted 8020 practice test so you can know mistakes and overcome them at each and every step.
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q23-Q28):
NEW QUESTION # 23
In operational resilience, what is impact tolerance?
- A. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk capacity statement.
- B. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business service.
- C. Impact tolerance is a firm's risk appetite statement.
- D. Impact tolerance is a firm's tolerance for disruption to a particular business process.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 24
For the TSB case what was the cause of the outage at the heart of the case?
- A. A failed attempts to move customers to a new IT system left millions of people locked out of their accounts for weeks.
- B. A liquidity squeeze by a major hedge-fund via margin calls on trading positions resulted in the collapse of their website.
- C. Sub-standard risk pricing and risk management left millions of people locked out of their accounts for weeks.
- D. Their IT models did not work if prices were discontinuous.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding the TSB Case
The TSB outage in 2018 was caused by a failed IT migration from its old banking system to a new one.
The transition locked millions of customers out of their accounts for weeks, resulting in financial losses and reputational damage.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
TSB attempted to move customer data to a new banking platform, but serious defects in the migration process led to service failures.
PRMIA and UK Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) reports confirmed that poor IT risk management was a key failure.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Liquidity squeeze by hedge-fund")
Incorrect because TSB's failure was due to IT migration issues, not a liquidity crisis.
Option B ("Sub-standard risk pricing and risk management")
Incorrect because pricing models were not the cause-it was an IT system failure.
Option D ("IT models did not work if prices were discontinuous")
Incorrect as this issue is more common in high-frequency trading failures, not banking system outages.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
UK FCA Investigation on TSB Incident - Confirms IT migration failure as root cause.
PRMIA IT Risk Management Framework - Highlights risks of major IT transitions.
Final Conclusion:
The TSB outage was caused by a failed IT migration, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Risk Sensitive pricing is required for several good reasons. Which one of the following is not relevant to the Management's evaluation of the correct approach to Risk Sensitive pricing?
- A. To avoid the build-up of a skewed quality property portfolio.
- B. To link personal targets to risk-adjusted return requirements would reinforce the desired risk aware, culture.
- C. To ensure the income targets can be met or exceeded.
- D. To adequately reward the investors for the capital they gave us to put at risk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk-sensitive pricing ensures that financial institutions and businesses properly account for risk in their pricing strategies to maintain stability and sustainability. PRMIA's Risk Pricing and Capital Adequacy Guidelines define the importance of risk-sensitive pricing in ensuring fair compensation for risk exposure and avoiding risk concentration issues.
Step 1: Why Risk-Sensitive Pricing Is Important
Aligns risk with return: Pricing should be designed to reflect the underlying risk and return trade-off.
Protects investors: Investors expect compensation for capital at risk (Option A is correct).
Reinforces risk-aware culture: PRMIA promotes linking incentives to risk-adjusted returns (Option B is correct).
Prevents adverse selection: Proper risk pricing prevents low-quality assets from accumulating (Option C is correct).
Step 2: Why Option D Is Incorrect
Income targets are business-driven, not risk-driven.
Risk-sensitive pricing aims to balance risk and reward, not just maximize revenue.
PRMIA discourages profit-seeking behavior at the expense of risk considerations.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Pricing Guidelines - Defines the principles of risk-sensitive pricing.
PRMIA Risk-Adjusted Return Standards - Stresses linking incentives to risk-aware decisions.
PRMIA Capital Adequacy Framework - Highlights the role of risk-sensitive pricing in portfolio management.
Final Conclusion:
Risk-sensitive pricing is designed to align returns with risk exposure, not simply to meet or exceed income targets, making Option D the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 26
For the WorldCom case, what was one of the causes of the failure?
- A. Unauthorized trading in derivatives.
- B. The lack of a CRO during the final IPO.
- C. A rapid pace of acquisitions and poor integration of acquired companies.
- D. Risk models that did not reflect loosened underwriting standards of mortgage originators.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding the WorldCom Case
WorldCom was one of the largest U.S. telecom companies before its collapse in 2002 due to fraudulent accounting practices and poor risk management.
The company expanded aggressively through acquisitions but failed to integrate them properly, leading to financial mismanagement and accounting fraud.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
WorldCom acquired over 60 companies in a short period without proper integration.
This masked financial problems and led to $11 billion in fraudulent accounting adjustments.
PRMIA and risk management frameworks stress that poor integration after rapid acquisitions increases operational and financial risks.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Risk models and mortgage underwriting") → Incorrect because this describes the 2008 financial crisis, not WorldCom.
Option B ("Lack of a CRO during IPO") → Incorrect because WorldCom was well-established before its fraud-CRO absence was not the main issue.
Option D ("Unauthorized derivatives trading") → Incorrect because WorldCom's failure was due to fraudulent accounting, not derivatives.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Corporate Governance Guidelines - Discusses risks of poor post-merger integration.
SEC Investigation on WorldCom (2002) - Identified fraudulent accounting due to failed acquisitions.
NEW QUESTION # 27
For credit risk losses containing operational risk elements that have been historically included in an organizations' credit risk database how should the loss amount be treated?
- A. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
- B. The loss amount is split into credit and operational risk components.
- C. The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk
- D. The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding Credit Risk and Operational Risk Overlap
In some cases, credit risk losses contain elements of operational risk, such as fraud, documentation errors, or IT failures affecting credit transactions.
Basel II and III frameworks require institutions to distinguish between pure credit risk losses and operational risk components within those losses.
Treatment of Losses
The credit-related portion is accounted for under credit risk capital calculations.
The operational risk portion (e.g., fraud-related losses) should be classified separately and included in operational risk databases for risk measurement.
Why Answer C is Correct
Basel III and PRMIA recommend a clear split between credit risk and operational risk components to ensure accurate risk modeling.
If operational risk elements are ignored, an organization may underestimate its true operational risk exposure.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk.
Incorrect - This ignores operational risk components that should be accounted for separately.
B . The entire loss amount is treated as operational risk.
Incorrect - Credit risk losses are typically dominant in lending-related losses and should not be fully classified as operational risk.
D . The entire loss amount is treated as credit risk, but the loss is entered as a memorandum within the operational loss database and not used for capital modeling purposes.
Incorrect - The operational risk portion must be considered for capital modeling, not just recorded as a memo.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II & III Guidelines on Credit and Operational Risk Integration
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework
NEW QUESTION # 28
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